[Teachldsseminary] Priesthood/Baptism

[Beth Adams]

Wouldn't he have to confer the Priesthood first so that they could then baptize each other?  Today we already have the Priesthood power and the authority to baptize.  Neither Joseph nor Oliver had the proper Priesthood authority to baptize anyone until it was restored to them first.
   
  According to church history in the fulness of times Joseph and Oliver were asking what to do to be able to receive the blessing of baptism.  John the Baptist then came to them under the direction of Peter, James, and John and conferred the Aaronic Priesthood upon them and therefore passed on the keys he had held.  At that point he directs Joseph and Oliver to baptize each other and then confer the priesthood upon each other in the proper order of things. 
   
  In this instance perhaps John confered the Priesthood upon them so that they would have the authority to perform the ordinances for themselves as part of the restoration of all things.  
   
  I was able to find the above information on page 55 of the afore mentioned book.

"jsajen at juno.com" <jsajen at juno.com> wrote:
  Please help me to understand why John the Baptist first conferred the Aaronic Priesthood before Joseph and Oliver were baptized. Why didn't John baptize them and then confer the priesthood in the same order as would happen today (I didn't do a very good job in answering this question from a student)?
Jim Anderson
Olympia WA
_______________________________________________
FREE teachldsseminary email list sponsored by Latter-dayVillage.com
teachldsseminary at latter-dayvillage.com
http://latter-dayvillage.com/mailman/listinfo/teachldsseminary_latter-dayvillage.com
or http://tinyurl.com/bemmh 

List archives at http://latter-dayvillage.com/pipermail/teachldsseminary_latter-dayvillage.com/
or http://tinyurl.com/7dpqf 

List FAQ:
http://latter-dayvillage.com/support/users/kb.php?category_id=3